While this explanation makes sense, given that the question mentions can, is it not ETS-like to consider fringe cases here where the median = mean or median = mode. In such a situation, would the positional property of median also not transfer to these measures given that they are acting as the same value? This is a question only because the question stem states “can”, knowing that median is the answer is anyway axiomatic.
Makes sense, you’re not wrong.
But if my understanding is not flawed, where does that leave us?
I mean i agree with you, but i feel like the question wanted to test your understanding rather than looking out for such trivial edge cases.
Technically, you are right because by transitivity the mean and mode should also work if the median does.
You can either move on acknowledging that fact, or you can ask one of the staff members to perhaps “fix” the ambiguity.
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Eh I suppose that’s fair, I don’t really want to be a pedant and escalate this so I’ll just move on knowing I’ve understood the core idea behind it.
@Leaderboard can you take a look at this one please and make any changes if needed
Being pedantic is OK; this has been fixed.
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