Doubt on Quant logic - SD, Normal Distribution

Based on the video for Normal distribution, mean and median will be same as the graph is equally distributed. But, that would result in SD value to be 0 right?

Whenever median and mean is same, SD is 0, so how do we find 34% left, right of the mean? If SD is 0, ±1 SD will still be equal to 0.

Why do you think this?

I think you’re confused here.

  1. If SD=0, then all terms are the same. Eg 1,1,1,1 or 5,5,5. So the mean = median = the term that’s repeated ( 1 & 5 respectively in above examples).

  2. If mean = median, why must sd =0?

For eg, -1 and 1. Mean = median =0. SD= 1.

Oh got it. I had a misunderstanding of the logic here then. Combined 2 different principles.
This helps me understand better! Thank you :slight_smile:

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