I’m stuck on this question, does anyone know how to solve? Thanks!
Total sets of 5 numbers they can choose from 40 (repeats not allowed, order unimportant) = \frac{40!}{35! * 5!} = \frac{40 * 39 * 38 * 37 * 36}{5 * 4 * 3 * 2 * 1} = 658008
Total arrangements of 5 numbers they can choose from 11 (repeats allowed, order important) = 11 * 11 * 11 * 11 * 11 = 161051
Total number of balls to select from = 4
P(A) = \frac{1}{658008}
P(B) = \frac{1}{161051 * 4} = \frac{1}{644204}
P(B) > P(A)
Ans. B
Thanks so much!