I’m stuck on this question, does anyone know how to solve? Thanks!

Total sets of 5 numbers they can choose from 40 (repeats not allowed, order unimportant) = \frac{40!}{35! * 5!} = \frac{40 * 39 * 38 * 37 * 36}{5 * 4 * 3 * 2 * 1} = 658008

Total arrangements of 5 numbers they can choose from 11 (repeats allowed, order important) = 11 * 11 * 11 * 11 * 11 = 161051

Total number of balls to select from = 4

P(A) = \frac{1}{658008}

P(B) = \frac{1}{161051 * 4} = \frac{1}{644204}

P(B) > P(A)

Ans. B

Thanks so much!