Not convinced with the explanation here [SPOILER ALERT!]

SPOILER ALERT: You will encounter this question in the “Full Practice Test Beta 1” test. I would recommend skipping this thread if you’ve not attempted this test.
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Here’s the question:

Even though I answered this correctly, I wasn’t convinced with Greg’s (video) explanation of this question. Is there anyone else who can help with this please?

The graph has rotational symmetry about (x,y) = (1,0) and you can see that because f(1-x) = -f(x)

Hi thank you! Could you elaborate further?

What do you want elaborated?

I understand now. I was confused with the term rotational symmetry. Thank you!

Yeah, think odd functions but this one is just translated one unit to the right. From how odd functions work, you know that rotating the right half of the graph by 180 degrees ( about (1,0) ) would make it so that the right half is “on top” of the left half. The same logic applies for the left half mapping onto the right half. Now it’s pretty clear how the quantities are equal

Absolutely makes sense. Thanks again!