For this question, it says that Jack puts the candies back into the jar if it isn’t peach. So I just did 2/10 for the 3rd try since we know that there are still 2 peaches out of 10 in the jar at the 3rd try. This equals 20% which is greater than 0.13. The solution says the answer is 8/10 x 8/10 x 2/10, and I do not understand why that is.
You require that the 1st and 2nd draws are NOT peaches, no? You didn’t factor that into your argument.
Exactly. Since there are three trials, each independent, you will multiply the outcome of each trial. The first trial’s outcome is not a peach, so [1- P(Peach)], that is [1-(2/10)], same goes for the second becasue the fruit was replaced. On the third try, the probabilty of picking a peach is exactly 2/10.