For QB, you could add them to get 2/3^k. Then why can you not multiply both QA and QB by 2^k to get QA = 2^k/2^k = 1 and QB = 4^k/3^k? Then QA < QB
Am I missing a rule? Thanks!
Reminder that when multiplying numbers with the same base but different exponents that we add the exponents. In this case, 2^1 and 2^k would mean 2^{1+k}, not 4^{k}.
Good instinct to manipulate the given quantities!
ah, that’s what I was missing. Thank you for clarifying!
No worries, friend!