Hi! 2 foundational doubts from this question-
- The 1st property of exponents displayed below is valid also if there are >1 same bases in this example, like 2 and 3 - and we can basically equate through corresponding same base?
2. Is the converse of this true? Example- x^a= y^a - in this case, it would be incorrect to deduce that x=y right?

