This problem is really interesting because while attempting it I wrote the answer as 0 as these are mutually exclusive events so they can’t happen at the same time which is to say I assumed that P(A)*P(B) is the formula to find probability of events happening at the same time for independent even so this would definitely be 0 but I was humbled pretty quickly.
So, I have two questions-
- even if the question mentions its maximum why would it ever go above 0 because the expression P(A)*P(B) means they happen at the same time? It seems a little counter-intuitive to me
- In the solution video Greg says these probabilities are maximum when they are equal so I found this derivation online to support this claim. Is it the correct way to arrive at this conclusion?
This is the proof I found online-
Step-by-Step Approach:
Let x=P(A) and y=P(B) and recall the constraint:
x+y≤1
We want to maximize the product:
x*y
We can express y in terms of x using the constraint x+y≤1. So, y=1−x. Substituting this into the product gives:
xy=x(1−x)=x−x^2
Now, we have the function f(x)=x−x^2 and we want to find the maximum value of this expression.
Step 1: Complete the Square
We can rewrite the quadratic expression f(x)=x−x^2 by completing the square.
Now, to complete the square, factor out the negative sign from the quadratic term:
f(x)=−(x^2 -x)
f(x)=−(x2−x+1/4−1/4)
This simplifies to:
f(x)=−((x−1/2)^2−1/4)
Step 2: Analyze the Expression
The expression f(x)=−(x−12)^2+1/4 shows that the function f(x) is a downward-opening parabola with a maximum value of 1/4
Step 3: Conclusion
Since the maximum value of f(x)=x(1−x) occurs when x=1/2, the maximum possible value of P(A)×P(B) is 1/4