Hi all, I hope you are all having a lovely day. I encountered the following question and, as some of you may know, the answer is A, as the 15th percentile is to the left of the line designated as -1 (less than one standard deviation).
However, I am struggling to reconcile this with a quant concept that I have written down which is that: the 20th percentile are numbers greater than the first 20% of the data, in my head this makes it so that the 20th percentile would be (effectively) that first value at 21% of the data, which starts pushing it, in the case of the above question, awfully close to the 16th percentile, and therefore the single standard deviation line. I feel like, regardless, you get the same answer. But I thought I would enquire.
I look forward to hearing everyone’s input!