The correct answer is “D”. Why do we not multiply the probabilities to get the probability of both of them happening at the same time?
How differently the question needed to be asked for the answer to the probability of both of them happening at one to be 3/20?
@Leaderboard could you please answer this question?
Are you given any evidence that the two events are independent?
No.
Then you can’t just assume that P(A \cap B) = P(A) \times P(B).
Thank you.