The demise of the rigorous academic curriculum in high school resulted, in part, from the progressive rhetoric that ------- the study of subjects previously thought ------- as part of school learning.
(A) advocated … necessary
(B) enhanced . .indispensable
(C) restricted . . impractical
(D) undermined … popular
(E) sanctioned . .inappropriate
The answer is (E), but I chose (A). Let me write down Greg’s double possibility first:
Interpretation 1:
- Previous view: Subjects were essential (+)
- Progressive view: Subjects were inappropriate, so they devalue it, contrasting previous view (-)
- Actual correct and current view: Subjects were actually essential (+)
- Result: Demise of academic rigor, because they devalued something truly essential
Interpretation 2 (this is answer choice (E)):
- Previous view: Subjects were inappropriate (-)
- Progressive view: Subjects were essential, so we advocated for it, contrasting previous view (+)
- Actual correct and current view: Subjects were actually inappropriate (-)
- Result: Demise of academic rigor, because they advocated for something truly inappropriate
However, I think it’s possible to have a different interpretation too that lead to the demise of academic rigor:
Interpretation 3:
- Previous view: Subjects were essential (+)
- Progressive view: Subjects were essential, so we advocated for it, supporting previous view (+)
- Actual correct and current view: Subjects were actually inappropriate, contrasting both previous and progressive views (-)
- Result: Demise of academic rigor, because they reinforced the previous view that was mistaken
Interpretation 4:
- Previous view: Subjects were inappropriate (-)
- Progressive view: Subjects were inappropriate, so we devalue it, supporting previous view (-)
- Actual correct and current view: Subjects were actually essential, contrasting both previous and progressive views (+)
- Result: Demise of academic rigor, because they reinforced the previous view that was mistaken
Although all interpretations lead to the same result, I think my interpretations (3 and 4) are more accurate, because the use of “previously thought” suggests a contrast with the current actual thought. In other words, it’s not a contrast between the previous view and the progressive view (Greg’s and ETS’s interpretations), but rather a contrast between the previous view and the current view (my interpretation).
Did I make mistake somewhere? Happy to be wrong about this though.